GLAAD Slams Saul of Tarsus

GLAAD apparently has a problem with Paul, as he has been is known since being struck blind on the road to Damascus by an unknown force calling itself Jesus in an attempt to forcibly convert him to Christianity .

Paul and his family claim to be Christian, but Pails’s lies about an entire community fly in the face of what true Christians believe,” said spokesperson Wilson Cruz. “He clearly knows nothing about gay people....
The part that got GLAAD all riled up.
Now therefore, it is already an utter failure for you that you go to law against one another. Why do you not rather accept wrong? Why do you not rather let yourselves be cheated? 8 No, you yourselves do wrong and cheat, and you do these things to your brethren! 9 Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals,[a] nor sodomites, 10 nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God. 11 And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God.
Heaven, it doesn't really matter who you are, you ain't getting in.

So if you are lucky enough to find grace and get to heaven every fornicator idolator, adulterer, homosexual, sodomite, thief, drunkard, dope fiend, reviler, or extortioner you meet will all have gotten there the same way you did, by grace.

So my advice, note *murderers missed the list and pray that by the grace of God you find yourself among the group of fine human beings listed above.

*No, murderers aren't listed, yet I find myself conflicted on that because Saul was nothing before his conversion if not an efficient killer of Christians.

Posted by: Howie at 02:06 PM


1 Serious question here-- how do some Christians get that "fornicating" is a sin? How else do we pro-create and fulfill the Torah's first commandment "be fruitful and multiply"? There are prohibited sexual relationships (i.e. incest), but not between un-related male & female... (i.e. biblical definition of bastard is child of a biblicly prohibited sexual relationship (incest), not an unwed couple)...

Posted by: unPC at December 18, 2013 03:48 PM

2 That explanation is in the Torah? Gee, I guess my Rabbi's didn't see that.

Posted by: Kafiroon at December 18, 2013 03:59 PM

3 I believe the rule is that once you take the maiden she is your wife.

It always says "took a wife" which I take as "He hit dat".

All the weddings that I see come much later.

Posted by: Howie at December 18, 2013 04:03 PM

4 Some theological scholars interpret it in that fashion. Under that interpretation, man and woman are not actually husband and wife until "he hit dat" as it were, the consumation being the point the marriage actually occurs in the eyes of God. Any ceremony is really just for human enjoyment.

Under this interpretation, effectively, fornication and adultery are essentially the same thing. Traditionally, fornication is considered to be sex out of marriage, especially prolific sex out of marriage. If the first woman a man has sex with is his wife, than any further encounters after that, in the eyes of God, would be adultery (or in the eyes of man fornication as they may not be legally married) and therefore, sin.

Interestingly, isnt "be fruitful and multiple" applied to Noah after the Flood, and therefore not the first commandment, which would have been "Leave that Tree there Alone"?

I am afraid my knowledge of the Torah is non existent, so I do not know the ordering of events in it. In any case, Be Fruitful and Multiply occurs long before the giving of the Law to Moses, in which "Thou Shalt not Commit Adultery" was, literally, written in stone.

It should also be noted that Saul himself was a Pharisee before his conversion on the road to Damascus. The Pharisees (By Jesus's own admonitions) were given to extreme legalism in their approach to most things and this is likely reflected in Paul's writings as well. In this case "fornication" may have a technical meaning relavant specifically to whom Paul was writing.

Posted by: Lecroix at December 19, 2013 09:26 AM

5 Well since we are going to go on about that.
Please understand you are dealing with the language Hebrew and a little Aramaic in the Torah.
Hebrew (and Greek) words change their forms in many ways, depending on how they are used in a sentence, but dictionaries list only the most basic form of each word. You have to know the root form of the word.
I have seen and heard of libraries of books on the meaning of the Hebrew words in Israel.
The old jokes about three Hebrews getting together and starting 5 political parties and 6 Synagogues is basically because they argue continually about the root meanings of words.
You think that is confusing? You ought to hear them with driving directions.

Posted by: Kafiroon at December 19, 2013 11:32 AM

6 This is very true. Sadly I do not know nearly enough Greek to do an entomoglogical(izzis a word?) analysis of the word Paul used that translates to fornication in english (more or less.)

Posted by: Lecroix at December 19, 2013 02:19 PM

7 Skip the Greek. They did NOT speak Greek except for Saul and Mark.
Again, your dealing with Hebrew of many meanings in the root and the same with Greek. How accurate was the interpreter. Did Saul read every word he dictated?

Posted by: Kafiroon at December 19, 2013 02:33 PM

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